IB DCIO/Tech Mock Test Series & Prep: Deputy Central Intelligence Officer (Technical)
A Group ‘A’ technical post in the Intelligence Bureau, recruited by UPSC through one 300-mark Recruitment Test and an interview — not through SSC, and not the same post as ACIO. The 2026 test was held on 11 October 2026; UPSC has published the question paper and the result is awaited.
Advertisement No. 06/2026: six posts, applications closed 3 July 2026
UPSC held the offline Recruitment Test on Sunday, 11 October 2026, 09:30 to 11:30, at fifteen centres, in English only, and published the question paper on 12 October 2026. The written result, interview dates and answer key had not been published when this page was last checked (24 October 2026); this page is updated when UPSC publishes them.
Posts, 2026 cycle
6
Recruitment Test (held)
11 Oct 2026
Pay level
Level-10 (₹56,100 basic)
At a glance
IB DCIO/Tech — overview
The Intelligence Bureau fills its Deputy Central Intelligence Officer (Technical) posts through the Union Public Service Commission, not through its own examination. UPSC advertises the posts in one of its regular recruitment advertisements, shortlists with a written Recruitment Test, and interviews the shortlisted candidates. There has been an advertisement in every year since 2019, with between 4 and 27 posts.
Duties, as advertised
- Supervision of operation & maintenance of communication network/equipment;
- Maintenance & operation of cyber security/forensics equipment;
- R&D work, mainly dealing with electronics & telecommunication;
- To undertake & supervise the operational work assigned;
- Supervision of maintenance & operation of audio, video & CCTV equipment.
Current cycle
2026 cycle — Advertisement No. 06/2026
Everything below is from UPSC's advertisement, addendum and corrigendum. Nothing is a prediction.
| Event | 2026 cycle |
|---|---|
| Advertisement | Advt. No. 06/2026, Vacancy No. 26060652613 (item 52) |
| Application window | 13 June – 3 July 2026, 18:00 |
| Recruitment Test | Held 11 October 2026, forenoon, 09:30–11:30 |
| Question paper | Published by UPSC on 12 October 2026 |
| Written result | To be announced |
| Interview | To be announced |
| Final result | To be announced |
| Category | Posts |
|---|---|
| UR | 3 |
| EWS | 2 |
| OBC | 1 |
| Total | 6 |
The 2026 post is neither reserved for nor suitable for PwBD candidates, per the advertisement.
What we offer
Our DCIO/Tech course on The Victory Key
Everything the platform currently has for this exam. The list updates itself as new tests and notes are published.
PDF notes: DCIO (14)Premium
- DCIO - Power Notes - TVK
- 01 Engineering Aptitude - TVK
- 02 Electronic Devices & Circuits - TVK
- 03 Digital Electronics - TVK
- 04 Computer Programming & Data Structures - TVK
- 08 Signals Systems and DSP - TVK
- 09 Computer Organization Operating Systems - TVK
- 10 Computer Networks Cyber Security - TVK
- 11 Wireless Communications Networking - TVK
- 12 Artificial Intelligence - TVK
- 13 Internet of Things - TVK
- 05 Analog Digital Communications - TVK
- 06 Microwave Engineering RADAR Systems - TVK
- 07 Satellite Communications - TVK
PDF notes: PYQs (4)
- DCIO 2024 - Solved Paper - TVK
- DCIO 2025 - Solved Paper - TVK
- DCIO 2023 - Solved Paper - TVK
- DCIO 2021 - Solved Paper - TVK
DCIO/Tech track
₹399₹1,499
Unlocks every DCIO/Tech test and PDF above, including the premium notes. Or take the TVK+ All-Access Pass for every exam on the platform.
Who can apply
Eligibility criteria
Quoted verbatim from Advertisement No. 06/2026. The wording has been the same since 2019.
- Age — 35 years for unreserved and EWS candidates on the closing date. The 2026 advertisement gives 38 for OBC; the 2024 advertisement gave 40 for SC/ST.
- Experience — none required.
- Qualification relaxation — at UPSC's discretion, for reasons recorded in writing, for candidates otherwise well qualified.
Structure
Recruitment Test pattern
From the addendum notices for the 2025 and 2026 tests, which are identical except for the medium.
| Format | Offline, pen-and-paper (OMR). Objective questions with multiple-choice answers. |
|---|---|
| Duration | Two hours |
| Maximum marks | 300. All questions carry equal marks. |
| Questions | 100 of 3 marks each in the 2025 and 2026 papers; 120 of 2.5 marks each in 2022–2024 |
| Negative marking | One-third of the marks of the question per wrong answer; no penalty for a blank. |
| Medium | English only |
| Centres (2026) | Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Jaipur, Jammu, Kochi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai, Nagpur, Port Blair, Ranchi, Vishakhapatnam |
What is tested
Syllabus — thirteen topics
Exactly as UPSC lists them in the addendum notice. UPSC publishes no marks weightage per topic; the grouping below is ours, to show the electronics/computing split.
Electronics and communication
- Electronic Devices and Circuits
- Digital Electronics
- Analog and Digital Communications
- Microwave Engineering, RADAR Systems
- Satellite Communications
- Signals and Systems, Digital Signal Processing
- Wireless Communications and Networking
Computing, networks and aptitude
- Engineering Aptitude covering logical reasoning and analytical ability
- Computer Programming and Data Structures
- Computer Organization and Operating Systems
- Computer Networks and Cyber Security
- Artificial Intelligence
- Internet of Things
UPSC has published the full question paper of the test held on 5 October 2025 on upsc.gov.in under Recruitment → Recruitment Tests → Question Papers. It is the only official sample of the paper's difficulty and phrasing.
Track record
Every DCIO/Tech recruitment since 2016
One row per UPSC advertisement. Dates and counts are from the advertisements, test notices and final-result notices; a dash means UPSC has not published the figure.
| Cycle | Advertisement (applications) | Posts | Recruitment Test | Appeared | Final result | Selected |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 2016–18 | 23/2016 (24 Dec 2016) | 6 | 21 Jan 2018 (computer-based) | 2,697 | — | 6 |
| 2019–21 | 18/2019 (28 Dec 2019) | 27 (UR-10, OBC-9, SC-4, EWS-3, ST-1) | 8 Mar 2020 (computer-based) | — (98 shortlisted) | 13 Dec 2021, after interviews 25–29 Oct 2021 | 27 |
| 2021–23 | 12/2021 (Sep 2021; closed 30 Sep 2021) | 10 (UR-6, OBC-1, SC-1, ST-1, EWS-1) | 16 Oct 2022 | 3,415 | 12 Jul 2023, after interviews 3–5 Jul 2023 | 10 |
| 2022–24 | 24/2022 (24 Dec 2022 – 12 Jan 2023) | 4 (UR-2, OBC-1, SC-1) | 5 Nov 2023 | 1,700 | 16 Apr 2024, after interviews 8–9 Apr 2024 | 4 |
| 2023–24 | 15/2023 (12 – 31 Aug 2023) | 4 (UR-2, OBC-1, EWS-1) | 5 Nov 2023 (same test) | 1,287 | 2024 (date not on upsc.gov.in) | 4 |
| 2024–25 | 10/2024 (25 May – 13 Jun 2024) | 9 (UR-5, EWS-2, SC-1, ST-1) | 20 Oct 2024 | 1,926 | 21 May 2025, after interviews 30 Apr – 2 May 2025 | 9 |
| 2025–26 | 07/2025 (14 Jun – 3 Jul 2025) | 13 (UR-7, OBC-2, SC-2, ST-2) | 5 Oct 2025 | — | 5 Jun 2026, after interviews 18–21 May 2026 | 13 |
| 2026 | 06/2026 (13 Jun – 3 Jul 2026) | 6 (UR-3, EWS-2, OBC-1) | 11 Oct 2026 | — | To be announced | — |
The pattern to notice: the advertisement has appeared between May and December, the test has followed three to five months later, and the final result has come six to eight months after the test. The 2019 cycle was the exception — its interviews were delayed to October 2021.
The bar
Cut-offs — minimum marks of selected candidates
From UPSC's “Sharing of Information” sheets. Test marks are out of 300; the final total is out of 400 (test + interview). UPSC has not published sheets for the 2020 and 2025 tests.
| Cycle | UR | OBC | SC | ST | EWS | Final, UR (/400) | Highest (/400) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 2024–25 (Advt 10/2024, 9 posts) | 123.33 | — | 89.18 | 73.33 | 105.83 | 185.18 | 202.83 |
| 2023–24 (Advt 15/2023, 4 posts) | 93.33 | 84.18 | — | — | 75.83 | 159.68 | 161.68 (UR) · 265.00 (OBC) |
| 2022–24 (Advt 24/2022, 4 posts) | 100.00 | 91.68 | 73.33 | — | — | 179.18 | 186.00 |
| 2021–23 (Advt 12/2021, 10 posts) | 135.83 | 135.00 | 109.18 | 100.00 | 133.33 | 205.50 | 239.83 |
| 2016–18 (Advt 23/2016, 6 posts) | 142.00 | 126.00 | 114.00 | 80.50 | — | 204.52 | 211.58 |
A dash means no candidate of that category was selected in that cycle, so UPSC published no figure. The two 2023 rows were decided on the same test paper, held on 5 November 2023 for two separate advertisements.
Interview suitability floor
| General / EWS | 50 out of 100 |
|---|---|
| OBC | 45 out of 100 |
| SC / ST | 40 out of 100 |
Suitability Threshold Rules
Candidates who score below the category-specific floor in the interview are not recommended for selection, irrespective of their score in the written Recruitment Test.Pay
Salary and service conditions
| Pay level | Level-10 of the 7th CPC pay matrix |
|---|---|
| Basic pay at entry | ₹56,100 per month |
| Allowances | Dearness allowance, house rent allowance and transport allowance as applicable to Central Government Group ‘A’ officers in Delhi |
Estimated In-Hand & Benefits
UPSC states only the pay level. With the dearness, house-rent and transport allowances in force in 2025–26, the gross for a Level-10 officer posted in Delhi comes to roughly ₹1.1 to 1.2 lakh a month; that is an estimate, not a UPSC figure, and it moves with every dearness-allowance revision. The post is permanent, Group ‘A’ Gazetted, with a one-year probation and all-India transfer liability.How you get in
Selection process
Apply Online
Through UPSC's Online Recruitment Application (ORA) portal within the advertisement window. Eligibility is judged on the closing date.
Recruitment Test
Offline, two hours, 300 marks, negative marking of one-third. UPSC shortlists on the test score (provisional until verification).
Interview
100 marks, with a suitability floor of 50 for UR/EWS, 45 for OBC, and 40 for SC/ST candidates.
Final Merit
Test 75% + Interview 25%, added on a 400-mark scale. Complete marks are published on UPSC's site after process conclusion.
Cost
Application fee
| Category | Fee |
|---|---|
| Unreserved / OBC / EWS (male) | ₹25, paid online (card, UPI or net banking) |
| Women / SC / ST / PwBD | No fee |
Mandatory Payment Compliance
Applications without the fee are rejected outright. No fee exemption exists for unreserved, OBC or EWS male candidates.How to prepare
A strategy built around what actually scores
Three-quarters of your final score is the written test
The Recruitment Test is 300 of the 400 final marks. The interview is 100, with a floor of 50 for unreserved candidates, so at most 50 marks of separation can come from the interview against 300 on paper. Treat the interview as a check you must clear, not as a place to recover.
The cut-off has ranged from 93 to 142 out of 300
That is 31% to 47% of the paper. In the two most competitive cycles (2018 and 2022) the unreserved cut-off was above 135. A target of 150 is 55 correct and 15 wrong out of 100 questions.
One wrong answer costs a third of a right one
Each question is 3 marks; a wrong answer deducts 1. Guessing between two options is still worth it on expectation, but blind guessing across the paper is not. Learn to leave questions.
Half the syllabus is electronics, half is computing
Seven of the thirteen topics are devices, digital electronics, communications, microwave and RADAR, satellite, signals and DSP, wireless. Computer-science graduates usually lose marks there, and electronics graduates lose them on data structures, operating systems, networks and security. Whichever side you come from, the other half is where the cut-off is made.
Competition is a few thousand for a handful of posts
Between 1,287 and 3,415 candidates have sat the test in the cycles where UPSC has published the count, for 4 to 10 posts. That ratio rewards accuracy over coverage: the paper is broad, but you only need to be reliably right on the topics you choose to prepare well.
The test is in English only
Since the September 2026 corrigendum the medium is English alone. Read the 2025 question paper, which UPSC has published, to get used to the phrasing and the mix of numerical and conceptual questions.
Questions
Frequently asked questions
What is DCIO/Tech in the Intelligence Bureau?
Deputy Central Intelligence Officer (Technical) is a permanent Group ‘A’ Gazetted post in the Intelligence Bureau under the Ministry of Home Affairs, at Level-10 of the 7th CPC pay matrix. The advertised duties are supervision of communication networks and equipment, maintenance and operation of cyber-security and forensics equipment, R&D in electronics and telecommunication, and supervision of audio, video and CCTV equipment. Headquarters is New Delhi with all-India transfer liability.
Is the DCIO/Tech 2026 recruitment open?
No. The application window for Advertisement No. 06/2026 closed on 3 July 2026, and UPSC held the Recruitment Test on 11 October 2026 (09:30 to 11:30, fifteen centres). UPSC published the question paper on 12 October 2026. As of 24 October 2026 the written result, interview dates and answer key have not been published. There are six posts: three unreserved, two EWS and one OBC.
When will the DCIO Tech 2026 result come?
UPSC has not announced a date. It first publishes a written result listing the roll numbers shortlisted for interview, then the final result after the interviews. The written result came 30 days after the test in 2024 (19 November) and 24 days after it in 2025 (29 October). For the 2025 cycle the final result came on 5 June 2026, after interviews on 18–21 May 2026; for the 2024 cycle it came on 21 May 2025, after interviews from 30 April to 2 May 2025.
Is there an official DCIO Tech answer key?
UPSC publishes the official key only after a cycle's final result. Keys are out for the 2022, 2023 and 2024 tests; the 2025 and 2026 keys were not published as of 24 October 2026. The previous-year-papers page links every official paper and key.
Who is eligible for DCIO/Tech?
A B.E., B.Tech or B.Sc (Engg) in Electronics, Electronics and Communication, Electronics and Telecommunication, Computer Science, Computer Engineering, Computer Technology, CSE, Information Technology or Software Engineering; or AMIE / AMIETE in Electronics and Communication (for enrolments up to 31 May 2013); or an M.Sc in Physics with Electronics or Telecommunications; or an MCA after a B.Sc in Physics, or an M.Sc in IT, Computer Science or Software. No work experience is required. Age limit is 35 for unreserved and EWS candidates, with 38 for OBC in the 2026 advertisement and 40 for SC/ST in the 2024 advertisement.
What is the DCIO/Tech exam pattern?
One offline, pen-and-paper Recruitment Test of two hours, objective multiple-choice, 300 maximum marks with all questions carrying equal marks, in English only, with a one-third deduction for every wrong answer. The October 2025 paper had 100 questions of 3 marks each. Candidates shortlisted from the test are interviewed for 100 marks. The final merit is the test at 75% and the interview at 25%.
What is the DCIO/Tech syllabus?
Thirteen topics: engineering aptitude with logical reasoning; electronic devices and circuits; digital electronics; computer programming and data structures; analog and digital communications; microwave engineering and RADAR systems; satellite communications; signals and systems with digital signal processing; computer organisation and operating systems; computer networks and cyber security; wireless communications and networking; artificial intelligence; and the internet of things. UPSC publishes no marks weightage per topic.
What were the DCIO/Tech cut-offs?
On the 300-mark Recruitment Test, the unreserved cut-off was 123.33 in the 2024 cycle, 100.00 and 93.33 for the two advertisements tested together in November 2023, 135.83 in the 2022 test and 142.00 in the 2018 test. The final unreserved cut-off out of 400 was 185.18 in 2024 and 205.50 in 2022. UPSC has not published sheets for the 2020 and 2025 tests.
How many candidates appear for DCIO/Tech?
1,926 sat the October 2024 test for 9 posts; 3,415 sat the October 2022 test for 10 posts; 1,700 and 1,287 sat the November 2023 test for two advertisements of 4 posts each; and 2,697 sat the January 2018 test for 6 posts.
What is the DCIO/Tech salary?
Level-10 of the 7th CPC pay matrix, which starts at a basic pay of ₹56,100 per month, plus dearness allowance, house rent allowance and transport allowance. UPSC does not publish an in-hand figure; with current allowances the gross in Delhi works out to roughly ₹1.1 to 1.2 lakh a month, which is an estimate and changes with each dearness-allowance revision.
Is there an application fee?
₹25 for unreserved, OBC and EWS male candidates, paid online. Women, SC, ST and PwBD candidates pay no fee. Applications are made through UPSC's Online Recruitment Application portal.
Cover both halves of the syllabus. Clear the bar.
TVK+ gives you every mock test series on the platform, the PDF study library and new DCIO/Tech material as it is published.
Last verified against UPSC's documents: 2026-10-24. Official source: upsc.gov.in
Sources: UPSC Advertisement Nos. 18/2019, 12/2021, 24/2022, 15/2023, 10/2024, 07/2025 and 06/2026 · Recruitment Test addendum notices (24 Jul 2025, 21 Aug 2026) and corrigendum (15 Sep 2026) · “Sharing of Information” cut-off sheets dated 12 Nov 2024, 14 Nov 2024 (two) and 25 Sep 2025, and the Advt. 23/2016 sheet · Final result notices dated 13 Dec 2021, 12 Jul 2023, 16 Apr 2024, 21 May 2025 and 5 Jun 2026 · Question paper of the Recruitment Test held 5 Oct 2025.
Related exams: SEBI Grade A IT · RBI Grade B · IBPS SO IT · AD IT